Preboard Exam B — Test 2: Community, Maternal & Child Health Nursing

Answers

Situation : Nurse Macarena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this particular population group.

 

1. Daphne, 19 years old, asks nurse Macarena how can pregnancy be prevented through tubal ligation. Which would be the best answer?

 

1. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes will lead to permanent closure of the vagina.
2. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked.
3. C.          Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
4. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is no where for them to go.

 

2. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:

 

1. A woman has no uterus
2. A woman has no children
3. C.          A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year
4. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months

 

3. Another client named Cindy is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes with fertility because:

 

1. A.         Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes
2. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen
3. The endometrial lining becomes inflamed leading to narrowing of the cervix.
4. Inflammation of the endometrium causes release of substance P which kills the sperm.

 

4. Cindy submits herself to Fatima Medical Center and  is scheduled to have a hysterosalphingogram. Which of the following instructions would you give her regarding this procedure?

 

1. Menstruation will be irregular for few months as an effect of the dye but it is just normal
2. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present
3. The women may experience some itchiness in the vagina as an after effect.
4. D.         Cramping may be felt  when the dye is inserted

 

5. Cindy’s cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Macarena’s specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Macarena?

 

1. A.         Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix
2. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary
3. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency
4. The husband’s sperm is administered intravenously weekly

 

 

Situation . Nurse Dee-Lan was a graduate of Our Lady of Fatima University, he started working as a nurse just right after he passed and topped the board exam. She was  assigned to take care of a group of patients across the lifespan.

 

6. Pain in geriatric clients require careful assessment because they:

 

          A. experienced reduce sensory perception

B. have increased sensory perception

C. are expected to experience chronic pain

D. have a increased pain sensitivity

 

7. Administration of aminoglycosides  to the older persons requires careful patient assessment because older people:

 

          A. are more sensitive to drugs

B. have increased hepatic, renal and gastrointestinal function

C. have increased sensory perception

D. mobilize drugs more rapidly

 

8. Elder clients are often at risk of having impaired skin integrity. One factor is that they often experience urinary incontinence. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary incontinence because of:

 

A. increased glomerular filtration                                           C. decreased bladder capacity

B. decrease elasticity of blood vessels                                   D. dilated urethra

 

9. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly?

 

A. decreased breath sounds with crackles                           C. pain

B. Increase body temperature                                                D. Restlessness, confusion, irritability

 

10. Prioritization is important to test a nurse’s good judgment towards different situations.  Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma patient:

A. circulation, airway, breathing                                             C. airway, breathing, disability (neurologic)

B. disability (neurologic), airway, breathing                          D. airway, breathing, circulation

 

11. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during their hospital stay after birth will notice which of the following symptoms as a primary manifestation of Achalasia?

 

A. Olive shaped mass on abdomen

B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth

C. The skin  turns yellow and then brown over the first 48 hours of life

D. Effortless and non-projectile vomiting

 

12. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been diagnosed as having a partial placenta previa. She is stable and has minimal spotting and is being sent home. Which of these instructions to the client may indicate a need for further teaching?

 

1. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
2. Avoid intercourse for three days.
3. Call if contractions occur.
4. Stay on left side as much as possible when lying down.

 

13. Ms. Anna, a review assistant of the greatest nursing review center in the Philippines has been rushed to the hospital with ruptured membrane. Which of the following should the nurse check first?

 

A. Check for the presence of infection

B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord

C. Check the maternal heart rate

D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid

 

14. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-coated diaper. If a topical medication were to be prescribed and it were to go on the stomachs or buttocks, the nurse would teach the caregivers to:

 

A.avoid covering the area of the topical medication with the diaper

B. avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper

C. put the diaper on as usual

D. apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the diaper

 

15. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the success of relationships used in delivering nursing care?

 

1. Type of illness of the client
2. Transference and counter transference
3. C.          Effective communication
4. Personality of the participants

 

16. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from automobile accident. Why are lacerations of lower extremities potentially more serious among pregnant women than other?

A. lacerations can provoke allergic responses due to gonadotropic hormone release

B. a woman is less able to keep the laceration clean because of her fatigue

C. healing is limited during pregnancy so these will not heal until after birth

D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine pressure on leg veins

 

17.  You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with acute glomerulonephritis. By following the prescribed treatment regimen, the child experiences a remission. You are now checking to make sure the child does not have a relapse. Which finding would most lead you to the conclusion that a relapse is happening?

A.  Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing complete blood count (CBC) with diiferential

B.  A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more for 3 days, or the child found to have 3-4+ proteinutria plus edema.

C.  The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine output, and a moon face.

D.  A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees F), flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on voiding, and cloudy urine.

18.  The painful phenomenon known as “back labor” occurs in a client whose fetus in what position?

 

A.  Brow position                                                  C. Breech position

B.  Right Occipito-Anterior Position                  D. Left Occipito-Posterior Position

 

Situation  – With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative to                                              treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The following conditions apply.

 

19. Which among the following is the primary focus of prevention of cancer?

 

1. A.      Elimination of conditions causing cancer
2. Diagnosis and treatment
3. Treatment at early stage
4. Early detection

 

20. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the following activities is the most important function of the community health nurse?

 

1. A.      Conduct community assemblies.
2. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with symptoms of cancer.
3. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters in our process of detection, control and treatment

modalities.

1. Teach woman about proper/correct nutrition.

 

21. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of care for cancer cases?

 

1. A.      Those under early case detection
2. Those under post case treatment
3. Those scheduled for surgery
4. Those undergoing treatment

 

22. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of care for cancer cases?

 

1. Those under early treatment                    C.  Those under early detection
2. Those under supportive care                D.  Those scheduled for surgery

 

23. Being a community health nurse, you have the responsibility of participating in protecting the health of people. Consider this situation: Vendors selling bread with their bare hands. They receive money with these hands. You do not see them washing their hands. What should you say/do?

A. “Miss, may I get the bread myself because you have not washed your hands”

B. All of these

C. “Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/ bread tong”

D. “Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands first before getting the bread”

 

Situation : The following questions refers to common clinical encounters experienced by an entry level nurse.

 

24. A female client asks the nurse about the use of a cervical cap. Which statement is correct regarding the use of the cervical cap?

 

1. A.         It may affect Pap smear results.
2. It does not need to be fitted by the physician.
3. It does not require the use of spermicide.
4. It must be removed within 24 hours.

 

25. The major components of the communication process are:

 

1. Verbal, written and nonverbal
2. Speaker, listener and reply
3. Facial expression, tone of voice and gestures
4. D.         Message, sender, channel, receiver and feedback

 

26. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes; is always hungry; has no lunch money; and is always tired. When the nurse asks the boy his tiredness, he talks of playing outside until midnight. The nurse will suspect that this child is:

 

1. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence quotient (IQ)
2. An orphan
3. C.          A victim of child neglect
4. The victim of poverty

 

Situation: Mike 16 y/o has been diagnosed to have AIDS, he worked as entertainer in a cruise ship;

27.  Which method of transmission is common to contract AIDS:

 

A. Syringe and needles                       A. Sexual contact

B. Body fluids                                        B. Transfusion

 

28.  Causative organism in AIDS is one of the following;

 

A. Fungus                                               C. retrovirus

B. Bacteria                                             D. Parasites

 

29.  You are assigned in a private room of Mike.  Which procedure should be of outmost importance;

 

A. Alcohol wash                                    C. Washing Isolation

B. Universal precaution                      D. Gloving technique

 

30.  What primary health teaching would you give to mike;

 

A.  Daily exercise                 C. reverse isolation

B. Prevent infection                            D. Proper nutrition

 

31.  Exercise precaution must be taken to protect health worker dealing with the AIDS patients .  which among these must be done as priority:

 

A. Boil used syringe and needles

B. Use gloves when handling specimen

C. Label personal belonging

D. Avoid accidental wound

Situation: Michelle is a 6 year old preschooler. She was reported by her sister to have measles but she is at home because of fever, upper respiratory problem and white sports in her mouth.

 

32. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior to eruption behind the ears. As a nurse, your physical examination must determine complication especially:

 

A. Otitis media                                                                                                      C. Inflammatory conjunctiva

B. Bronchial pneumonia                                                                     D. Membranous laryngitis

 

33. To render comfort measure is one of the priorities, Which includes care of the skin, eyes, ears, mouth and nose. To clean the mouth, your antiseptic solution is in some form of which one below?

 

A. Water                                                                                                C. Alkaline

B. Sulfur                                                                                 D. Salt

 

34. As a public health nurse, you teach mother and family members the prevention of complication of measles. Which of the following should be closely watched?

 

A. Temperature fails to drop                                                             C. Inflammation of the nasophraynx

B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva                                   D. Ulcerative stomatitis

 

35. Source of infection of measles is secretion of nose and throat of infection person. Filterable virus of measles is transmitted by:

 

A. Water supply                                                                                   C. Food ingestion

B. Droplet                                                                                             D. Sexual contact

 

36. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure to an infection person. Nursing responsibility for rehabilitation of patient includes the provision of:

 

A. Terminal disinfection                                                                      C. Immunization

B. Injection of gamma globulin                                                          D. Comfort measures

 

SITUATION: Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of their potential effect on the pregnancy, fetus, or newborn. The following questions pertain to STD’s.

 

37. Ms. Reynaldita is a promiscuous woman in Manila submits herself to the clinic for certain examinations. She is experiencing vaginal irritation, redness, and a thick cream cheese vaginal discharge. As a nurse, you will suspect that Ms. Reynaldita is having what disease?

1. Gardnerella Vaginalis
2. Candida Albicans
3. Treponema Pallidum
4. D.         Moniliasis

 

38. As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that the doctor may prescribe a certain medications for Ms. Reynaldita. What is the drug of choice for Reynaldita’s infection?

A. haloperidol

B. miconazole

C. benzathine penicillin

D. metronidazole

 

39. Based on your learnings, you know that the causative agent of Reynaldita’s infection is:

A. Monistat Candida

B. Candida Albicans

C. Albopictus Candidiasis

D. Monakiki

 

40. The microorganism that causes Reynaldita’s infection is a:

A. Bacteria

B. Protozoa

C. Fungus

D. Virus

 

41. Another client in the Maternal Clinic was Ms. Celbong. Her doctor examined Ms. Celbong’s vaginal secretions and found out that she has a Trichomoniasis infection. Trichomoniasis is diagnosed through which of the following method?

A. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide that has been treated with potassium hydroxide.

B. Vaginal speculum is used to obtain secretions from the cervix.

C.  A lithmus paper is used to test if the vaginal secretions are infected with trichomoniasis.

D. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide treated with zephiran solution.

 

42. Daphne who is on her first trimester of pregnancy is also infected with trichomoniasis. You know that the drug of choice for Daphne is:

A. Flagyl

B. Clotrimazole (topical)

C. Monistat

D. Zovirax

 

43. Syphilis is another infection that may impose risk during pregnancy. Since we are under the practice of health science, you know that Syphilis is caused by:

A. Treponema Syphilis

B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C. Chlamydia Trachomatis

D. Treponema Pallidum

44. What type of microorganism is the causative agent of syphilis?

A. Spirochete

B. Fungus

C. Bacteria

D. Protozoan

45. Under the second level of prevention, you know that one of the focuses of care is the screening of diseases. What is the screening test for syphilis?

A. VDRL

B. Western blot

C. PSA

D. ELISA

46. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may be experienced by the client with syphilis after therapy with benzathine penicillin G. The characteristic manifestations of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction are:

A. Rashes, itchiness, hives and pruritus

B. Confusion, drowsiness and numbness of extremities

C. sudden episode of hypotension, fever, tachycardia, and muscle aches

D. Episodes of nausea and vomiting, with bradypnea and bradycardia

 

47. A pregnant woman is in the clinic for consultation with regards to STD’s. She inquires about Venereal warts and asks you about its specific lesion appearance. Which of the following is your correct response to the client?

A. Why are you asking about it? You might be a prostitute woman.

B. The lesions appear as cauliflower like lesions.

C. It appears as pinpoint vesicles surrounded by erythema.

D. The lesions can possibly obstruct the birth canal.

 

48. Based on your past learnings in communicable diseases, you know that the causative agent of venereal warts is:

A. Chlamydia Trachomatis

B. Candida Moniliasis

C. Human Papilloma Virus

D. Staphylococcus Aureus

 

49. As a nurse in charge for this woman, you anticipate that the doctor will prescribe what medication for this type of infection?

A. Podophyllum (Podofin)

B. Flagyl

C. Monistat

D. Trichloroacetic acid

 

50. Cryocautery may also be used to remove large lesions. The healing period after cryocautery  may be completed in 4-6 weeks but may cause some discomforts to the woman. What measures can alleviate these discomforts?

A. Kegel’s Exercise

B. Cool air

C. Topical steroids

D. Sitz baths and lidocaine cream

 

51. In order to prevent acquiring sexually transmitted diseases, what is the BEST way to consider?

A. Condom use

B. Withdrawal

C. vasectomy

D. Abstinence

 

SITUATION: The Gastrointestinal System is responsible for taking in and processing nutrients for all parts of the body, any problem can quickly affect other body systems and, if not adequately treated, can affect overall health, growth, and development. The following questions are about gastrointestinal disorders in a child.

 

52. Mr. & Mrs. Alcaras brought their son in the hospital for check up. The child has failure to thrive and was diagnosed with pyloric stenosis. Which among the following statements are the characteristic manifestations of pyloric stenosis?

A. Vomiting in the early morning

B. Bile containing vomitus immediately after meal

C. sausage shaped mass in the abdomen

D. Projectile vomiting with no bile content

 

53. The exact cause of pyloric stenosis is unknown, but multifactorial inheritance is the likely cause. Being knowledgeable about this disease, you know that pyloric stenosis is more common in which gender?

A. Male

B. Female

C. Incidence is equal for both sexes

D. None of the above

 

54. To rule out pyloric stenosis, the definitive diagnosis is made by watching the infant drink. After the infant drinks, what will be the characteristic sign that will describe pyloric stenosis?

A. An olive-size lump can be palpated

B. There is gastric peristalsic waves from left to right  across the abdomen

C. A hypertrophied sphincter can be seen on ultrasound.

D. A tingling sensation is felt on the lower extremities

55. Shee Jan Long  a 10 months old infant was admitted to the hospital for severe abdominal pain. The doctor found out that the distal ileal segment of the child’s bowel has invaginated into the cecum. The nurse will suspect what disease condition?

A. Intussusception

B. Pyloric stenosis

C. Hirschprung’s disease

D. Vaginismus

 

56. In intussusceptions, children suddenly draw up their legs and cry as if they are in severe pain and possibly vomit. Another manifestation of such disease is the presence of blood in the stool. What is the characteristic stool of client with intussuscepton?

A. Coffee ground

B. Black and Tarry

C. Currant jelly stool

D. Watery stool

 

57. A 4-year-old child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. As a nurse, you must monitor the child closely for:

A. Diarrhea

B. Metabolic Acidosis

      C. Metabolic Alkalosis

D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

 

58. A nurse is monitoring for signs of dehydration in a 1-year-old child who has been hospitalized for diarrhea. The nurse prepares to take the child’s temperature and avoids which method of measurement?

A. Tympanic

B. Axillary

      C. Rectal

D. Electronic

 

59. A home care nurse provides instructions to the mother of an infant with cleft palate regarding feeding. Which statement if made by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?

A. “I will use a nipple with a small hole to prevent choking.”

B. “I will stimulate sucking by rubbing the nipple on the lower lip.”

C. “I will allow the infant time to swallow.”

D.” I will allow the infant to rest frequently to provide time for swallowing what has been placed in the mouth.”

 

60. An infant has just returned to the nursing unit following a surgical repair of a cleft lip located at the right side of the lip. The nurse places the infant in which most appropriate position?

A. On the right side

B. On the left side

C. Prone

D. Supine

 

61.  A clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant seen in the clinic. The nurse notes that a diagnosis of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is suspected. The nurse expects to note which most likely sign of this condition documented in the record?

A. Severe projectile vomiting

B. Coughing at night time

C. Choking with feedings

D. Incessant crying

 

SITUATION: Human development is one of the important concepts that a nurse should learn to be able to deal appropriately with their clients of different developmental stages.

 

62. Which statement best describes when fertilization occurs?

A. When the spermatozoon passes into the ovum and the nuclei fuse into a single cell.

B. When the ovum is discharged from the ovary near the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube.

C. When the embryo attaches to the uterine wall.

D. When the sperm and ova undergo developmental changes resulting in a reduction in the number of chromosomes.

 

63. A pregnant client asks you about fetal development. At approximately what gestational age does the fetus’s single chambered heart begin to pump its own blood cells through main blood vessels?

A. 10 weeks

B. 8 weeks

C. 5 weeks

D. 3 weeks

 

64. At 17 weeks gestation, a fetus isn’t considered to be ballotable. Ballotment means that:

A. The examiner feels rebound movement of the fetus.

B. The examiner feels fetal movement.

C. The client feels irregular, painless uterine contractions.

D. The client feels fetal movement.

 

65. Which hormone stimulates the development of the ovum?

A. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

B. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

C. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

D. Gonadotropin Releasing Hprmone (GnRH)

 

66. How long is the gestational period of a full term pregnancy?

A. Ranging from 245 days to 259 days

B. around 5,554 hours to 5,880 hours

C. More than 294 days

D. Averaging of 266  to 294 days

 

67. An 18 year old woman in her 18^th week of pregnancy is being evaluated. Which positive sign of pregnancy should the nurse expect to be present?

A. Fetal heart tones detectable by Doppler stethoscope

B. Fetal movement detectable by palpation

C. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound examination.

D. Fetal heart tones detectable by a fetoscope.

 

68. During her prenatal visit, a 28 year old client expresses concern about nutrition during pregnancy. She wants to know what foods she should be eating to ensure the proper growth and development of her baby. Which step should the nurse take first?

A. Give the client a sample diet plan for a 2,400 calorie diet.

B. Emphasize the importance of avoiding salty and fatty foods.

C. Instruct the client to continue to eat a normal diet.

D. Assess the client’s current nutritional status by taking a diet history.

 

69. A nurse is teaching a class about the reproductive system. She explains that fertilization most often takes place in the:

A. Ovary

B. Fallopian tubes

C. Uterus

D. vagina

 

70. A large number of neural tube defects may be prevented if a pregnant woman includes which supplement in her diet?

A. Vit. A

B. Vit. E

C. Vit. D

D. Vit. B9

 

71. A 22 year old client is at 20 weeks gestation. She asks the nurse about the development of her fetus at this stage. Which of the following developments occurs at 20 weeks gestation?

A. The pancreas starts producing insulin and the kidneys produce urine.

B. The fetus follows a regular schedule of turning, sleeping, sucking, and kicking.

C. Swallowing reflex has been mastered, and the fetus sucks its thumb.

D. Surfactant forms in the lungs.

 

SITUATION: Developing countries such as the Philippines suffer from high infant and child mortality rates. Thus, as a management to the existing problem, the WHO and UNICEF launched the IMCI.

72. A 6 month old baby Len was brought to the health center because of fever and cough for 2 days. She weighs 5 kg. Her temperature is 38.5 taken Axillary.  Further examination revealed that she has general rashes, her eyes are red and she has mouth ulcers non deep and non extensive, There was no pus draining from her eyes. Most probably Baby Len has:

1. Severe complicated measles                   d.   Measles
2. Fever:  No MALARIA                                 e.   Measles with eye or mouth complications
3. Very severe febrile disease

 

73. The dosage of Vit. A supplement given to Baby Len would be:

1. 100,000 IU                                                  d.   200,000 IU
2. 10,000 IU                                                     e.   20,000 IU

 

74. Using IMCI Chart, this child can be manage with:

1. Treat the child with paracetamol and follow up in 2 days if the fever persist
2. Give the first dose of antibiotic, give Vit. A, apply Gentian Violet for mouth ulcers and refer urgently to hospital
3. Give100, 000 international units of Vit. A
4. Give200, 000 international units of Vit. A

                        e. Give Vit. A, apply Gentian violet for mouth ulcers and follow up in 2 days

75. The following are signs of severe complicated measles:

1. Clouding of the cornea
2. Deep or extensive mouth ulcers
3. Pus draining from the eyes
4. m.        A and b only
5. All of the above

 

76. If the child is having 2 ½ weeks ear discharges, how would you classify and treat the child:

1. Green                                                           5.   Dry the ear by wicking
2. Yellow                                                          6.   5 days antibiotic
3. Pink                                                              7.   Urgent referral with first dose of antibiotic
4. Red

 

a.   4,7                          b.   2,5,6                 c.   1,5                    d.   3,7                    e.   2,5

77. The following are treatments for acute ear infections:

1. Dry the ear by wicking                                              d.   A and c only
2. Give antibiotics for 5 days                        e.   All of the above
3. Follow up in 5 days

 

78. A child with ear problem should be assessed for the following, except:

1. Ear pain
2. If discharge is present for how long?
3. Ear discharge
4. d.          Is there any fever?
5. None of the above

 

79. If the child does not have ear problem, using IMCI, what should you do as a nurse?

1. a.          Go to the next question, check for malnutrition
2. Check for ear pain
3. Check for tender swelling behind the ear
4. Check for ear discharge

 

80. An ear discharge that has been present for more than 14 days can be classified as:

1. a.          Complicated ear infection                        c.   Chronic ear infection
2. Acute ear infection                                   d.   Mastoiditis

 

81. An ear discharge that has been present for less than 14 days can be classified as:

1. Complicated ear infection                        c.   Chronic ear infection
2. Acute ear infection                                   d.   Mastoiditis

 

82. If the child has severe classification because of ear problem, what would be the best thing that you should do as a nurse?

1. Dry the ear by wicking
2. Give an antibiotic for 5 days
3. c.           Refer urgently
4. Instruct mother when to return immediately

 

Situation: Primary Health Care (PHC)  is defined by the WHO as essential health care made universally accessible to individuals, families and communities.

 

83. The WHO held a meeting in this place where Primary health Care was discussed. What is this place?

A.      Alma Ata

B.       Russia

C.       Vienna

D.      Geneva

Situation: The national objective for maintaining the health of all Filipinos is a primary responsibility of the DOH.

 

84. The following are mission of the DOH except:

a. Ensure accessibility

b.Quality of health care

c.Health for all Filipinos

d.Quality of Life of all Filipinos

e. None of the above

 

85. The basic principles to achieve improvement in health include all BUT:

a. Universal access to basic health services must be ensured

b. The health and nutrition of vulnerable groups must be prioritized

c. Performance of the health sector must be enhanced

d. Support  the  frontline workers and the local health system

e. None of the above

 

86. Which of the following is not a primary strategy to achieve health goals:

 

a.       Support of local health system development

b.       Development of national standards for health

c.       Assurance of health care for all

d.       Support the frontline workers

e.      None of the above

 

87. According to the WHO health is:

A.  state of complete physical, mental and social well being not merely the absence of disease

B.   A science and art of preventing disease and prolonging life

C.   A science that deals the optimum level of functioning of the Individual, family and community

D.  All of the above

 

88. Assistance in physical therapy of a trauma patient is a:

Primary level of prevention

B. Secondary level of prevention

C. Tertiary level of prevention

D. Specialized level of prevention

 

89. Local health boards were established at the provincial, city and municipal levels. At the municipal level,the chairman of the board is the:

 

A.Rural Health physician

B.Governor

C.Mayor

D.Chairman of the Committee on Health

90. The emphasis of community health nursing is on:

 

A. Treatment of health problems

B. Preventing health problems and promoting optimum health

C. Identification and assessment of health problems

D. Illness end of the wellness-illness continuum.

 

91. In asking the mother about her child’s problem the following communication skills should be used except:

1. Use words that the mother understand
2. Give time for the mother to answer the questions
3. Listen attentively
4. d.          Ask checking questions
5. None of the above

 

92. Which of the following is the principal focus of the CARI program of the Department of Health?

1. Teach other community health workers how to assess patients
2. b.          Mortality reduction through early detection
3. Teach mothers how to detect signs and where to refer
4. Enhancement of health team capabilities

 

93. You were able to identify factors that lead to respiratory problems in the community where your health facility serves. Your primary role therefore in order to reduce morbidity due to pneumonia is to?

1. Seek assistance and mobilize the BHW’s to have a meeting with mothers
2. Refer cases to hospitals
3. Make home visits to sick children
4. d.          Teach mothers how to recognize early signs and symptoms of pneumonia

 

94. Which of the following is the most important responsibility of a nurse in the prevention of unnecessary deaths from pneumonia and other severe disease?

1. Weighing of the child
2. b.          Provision of careful assessment
3. Taking of the temperature of the sick child
4. Giving of antibiotics

 

95. A 4-month-old child was brought to your clinic because of cough and colds. Which of the following is your primary action?

1. Teach the mother how to count her child’s breathing?
2. Refer to the doctor
3. c.           Assess the patient using the chart on management of children with cough
4. Give cotrimoxazole tablet or syrup
5. All of the above

 

96. In responding to the care concerns to children with severe disease, referral to the hospital is of the essence especially if the child manifests which of the following?

1. Stopped feeding well                                                c.   Wheezing
2. b.          Fast breathing                                                             d.   Difficulty to awaken

 

Elvira Magalpok is a 26 year old woman you admit to a birthing room. She’s been having contractions 45 seconds long and 3 minutes apart for the last 6 hours. She tells you she wants to have her baby “naturally” without any analgesia or anesthesia. Her husband is in the Army and assigned overseas, so he is not with her. Although her sister lives only two blocks from the hospital, Elvira doesn’t want her called. She asks if she can talk to her mother on the telephone instead. As you finish assessing contractions, she screams with pain and shouts, “Ginagawa ko na ang lahat ng makakaya ko! Kailan ba matatapos ang paghihirap kong ito?”

 

97. Elvira didn’t recognize for over an hour that she was in labor. A sign of true labor is:

A. Sudden increase energy from epinephrine release

B. “Nagging” but constant pain in the lower back.

C. Urinary urgency from increased bladder pressure.

D. “Show” or release of the cervical mucus plug.

 

98. Elvira asks you which fetal position and presentation are ideal. Your best answer would be:

A. Right occipitoanterior with full flexion.

B. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion.

C. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion.

D. Left sacroanterior with full flexion.

 

99. Elvira is having long and hard uterine contractions. What length of contraction would you report as abnormal?

A. Any length over 30 seconds.

B. A contraction over 70 seconds in length.

C. A contraction that peaks at 20 seconds.

D. A contraction shorter than 60 seconds.

 

100. You assess Elvira’s uterine contractions. In relation to the contraction, when does a late deceleration begin?

A. Forty-five seconds after the contraction is over.

B. Thirty seconds after the start of a contraction.

C. After every tenth or more contraction.

D. After a typical contraction ends.